2000 miles of of notes to shield-bearing fuckdarts

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Trent - translate medical jargon? (Read 217 times)

Chenille


    posted: 4/12/2007 at 9:27 PM
    I'm just popping in to ask a favor. I just got this today, would you mind translating this into English for me? "AP and lateral of the right tibia show periosteal reaction in two places along the posterior lateral border of the tibia. The first place is at the junction of the middle and proximal thirds and the second place is at the junction of the middle and distal thirds. The proximal reaction is slightly more prominent than the distal reaction. No black line is seen at either level. Bone scan....increased uptake in two spots proximally and this is not anywhere near as prominent as the distal spot that corresponds with the junction of the middle and distal thirds. This area shows some serious increased uptake." It's the underlined areas I'm having the most confusion about - does "slightly more prominent" mean older as in last year older - or not as severe this year older? I only had (note use of past tense) pain in the distal area. I was told by the EBI rep that the injury was through the cortical bone but was difficult to determine the extent into the medulla. I was thinking I only had 1 problem area, the distal spot. How do you read this? If you'd rather not say, that's OK too. Thanks either way - Cheryl

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    Fanatic #3965

      posted: 4/12/2007 at 9:31 PM
      Cheryl, you could run that by backroadrunner, too. She's had bi-lateral stress-fractures and is a pretty hardcore medical jargon geek. She might be able to translate that some, too. How are your legs feeling? How much longer before you are allowed to resume weight-bearing exercise? k

      Kirsten

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      Trent


        posted: 4/12/2007 at 10:57 PM
        Quote from Chenille on 4/12/2007 at 9:27 PM:
        "AP and lateral of the right tibia show periosteal reaction in two places along the posterior lateral border of the tibia. The first place is at the junction of the middle and proximal thirds and the second place is at the junction of the middle and distal thirds. The proximal reaction is slightly more prominent than the distal reaction. No black line is seen at either level. Bone scan....increased uptake in two spots proximally and this is not anywhere near as prominent as the distal spot that corresponds with the junction of the middle and distal thirds. This area shows some serious increased uptake." It's the underlined areas I'm having the most confusion about - does "slightly more prominent" mean older as in last year older - or not as severe this year older? I only had (note use of past tense) pain in the distal area. I was told by the EBI rep that the injury was through the cortical bone but was difficult to determine the extent into the medulla. I was thinking I only had 1 problem area, the distal spot. How do you read this? If you'd rather not say, that's OK too. Thanks either way - Cheryl
        From googleMD translate: "Leg xray show nonspecific reaction on the outside of the bone in two places along the back/side border of the tibia. The first place is at the junction of the middle and proximal thirds and the second place is at the junction of the middle and distal thirds. The reaction up higher is more than the reaction down lower. There is no evidence of a broken bone fracture line at either place. Bone scan....evidence of inflammation in two places up high in the leg and this is not anywhere near as bad as the distal spot that corresponds with the junction of the middle and distal thirds. This area shows some serious serious inflammation." The radiologist hedged his/her bets. Slightly more tells nothing about age, but may. It looks to me like a healing or about-to-happen stress fracture at the distal spot and possibly a milder one at the proximal spot. MRI?
        Chenille


          posted: 4/13/2007 at 1:09 AM
          modified: 4/13/2007 at 1:10 AM
          Thanks - depends on what follow up x-ray shows - sorry to bother you - my doc is going out of town and my 6 week check has been delayed to 8 weeks - he won't "officially" release me until he sees me -I totally don't blame him. However, I am having a difficult time taking this too seriously when my injury (proximal) was so much more severe last year and because I kept getting told that it was just muscle and that I was a "slow" healer - I was doing ballistic bench ups within 3 months of resuming full training in an effort to toughen myself up Roll eyes- and I still didn't sustain a re-injury. Looking back - I'm pretty sure my injury occured the week between Christmas and New Years - lots more outdoor running in new shoes - those darn hard-as-cement Ice Bugs! If I had paid more attention to my post run pain - I would be running now. I feel fine - totally pain free x 2 weeks - I made a commitment to severely restrict impact for 6 weeks and that is what I will hold to.. FYI - the radiologist read and re-read was negative x-ray - 3 weeks before this reading from the 2nd opinion I got from orthopedic doc. Link to googleMD? Thank you pic!

          Life is not measured by the number of breaths we take, but by the number of moments that take our breath away...(unkown)




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          Trent


            posted: 4/13/2007 at 5:44 AM
            Nice pic. GoogleMD is my head Wink It is no bother, I am delighted to help. Good luck with it. Dang bones.
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